Multiple Choice Questions for All Subjects - ECE

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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers : for answers go to last 

1) If the segment address is 1005H and the offset is 5555H , Then the physical address is
a) 155A5 H b) 16560 H c) 155105 H d) 155B5 H
2) the CPU of 8086 is able to address
a) 64KB B) 1Mb c) 1MB d) 64 MB
3) MOV AX,[BX] instruction indicates what type of addressing mode
a) Register b) Register Direct c) Register Indirect d) Immediate
4) A MACRO can be defined in a program
a) any where b) only at the top c) outside of the program d) only at the bottom
5) In BSR mode of 8255 PPI which port can be set or reset
a) Port A B) Port B c) Port A ND B d) Port C
6)  Programmable interrupt controller is
a) 8258A b) 8259A c) 8255A d) 8295A
7) Paging operation existed in which Microprocessor
a) 8086MP b) 80286 MP c) 80386MP d)8085MP
8) Pentium Processor is _____________ architecture  processor
a) RISC b) CISC c) Hybrid RISC-CISC d) RISC or CISC
9) 8051Micro controller is a _______________
a) 8 bit MC b) 16 bit MC c) 20 bit MC d) 4 bit MC
10) Which register is used to store  one of the operands for multiply and divide instructions in 8051MC
a) B Register b) A Register c) Both A and B d) None 
11) 8051 MC have ________________ Bytes of RAM
a) 64 b)128 c)256 d)512
12) the bellow processor is a numeric co-processor
a) 8087 b)8086 c)8088 d)8085
13) " cycle stealing ",this term is belongs to which controller
a) 8255 PPI B) 8257DMA c) 8086MP d) none
14) The interrupt type RST 7.5 has
a ) no priority b) Lowest priority c)Highest priority d) none

15) microprocessor address bus is 
a) bidirectional b)unidirectional c) both a & b c) none
16) memory size can be defined as__________________(A=address lines , D= data lines )
a) 2A *D b) 2D *A c) 2*A*D d) none
17) for 8086 microprocessor has_____________ ground pins
a) only one b) two c) three d) none
18) the instruction NOP means
a) No Operation b) No Out Pins c)No Out Processing d)none
19) the instruction JNC is _______________instruction
a) control b) branching c) transfer d) logical
20) 80286MP can be able to address _____________physical memory
a) 20MB b)16MB c) 1MB d) 24MB 

21) The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics

a) Ri = ∞, AV= ∞, Ro = 0 b) Ri = 0, AV= ∞, Ro = 0
c) Ri = ∞, AV= ∞, Ro = ∞ d) Ri = 0, AV= ∞, Ro = ∞

22)The inverting OP-AMP shown in the figure has an open loop gain of 100. The closed loop gain Vo/Vs is 

 a) – 8 b) – 9 c) – 10 d) – 11

23)A 741 OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth product of 1 MHz A non-inverting amplifier using this OP-AMP and having a voltage gain of 20 dB will exhibit a –3 dB bandwidth of
  a) 50 kHz b) 100 kHz c) 100/17 kHz d) 1000/7.07 kHz

24)An amplifier using an OP-AMP with a slew rate SR = 1 V/µsec has a gain of 40 dB. If this amplifier has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals form dc to 20 kHz without any slew rate induced distortion, then the input signal level must not exceed

a) 795 mV b) 395 mV c) 79.5 mV d) 39.5 Mv

25)If the input to the ideal comparator shown in the figure is a sinusoidal signal of 8 volts peak to peak, without any DC component, then the output of the comparator has a duty cycle of 

a)1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/6 d) 1/2
26)An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

a) Voltage Controlled Current Source b) Voltage Controlled Voltage Source
c) Current Controlled Current Source d) Current Controlled Voltage Source

27)The circuit in the figure is a 

a) Low pass filter b) High pass filter c) Band pass filter d) Band reject filter

28)For the OP-AMP circuit shown in the figure, Vo is

a) – 2 volts b) – 1 volts c) – 0.5 volts d) + 0.5 volts

29)The OP-AMP circuit shown below represents a 

A) Low pass filter B) High pass filter C) Band pass filter D) Band reject filter

30)In the circuit shown below, the OP-AMPs are ideal. Then Vout in volts is

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

31)The CMRR of the differential amplifier shown is

a) Infinity b) Zero c) 900 d) 1800

32)If the input to the circuit shown is a sine wave, the output will be

    a) Half wave rectified sine wave b) Full wave rectified sine wave
      c) Triangular wave            d) Square wave

33)A change in the value of the emitter resistance, RE, in a differential amplifier

a) Affects the difference mode gain Ad b) affects the common mode gain Ac
c) Affects both Ad and Ac             d) does not affect both Ad and Ac.

34)One input terminal of high gain comparator circuit is connected to ground and a sinusoidal voltage is applied to the other input. The output of comparator will be

a) A sinusoid b) A full rectified sinusoid
c) A half rectified sinusoid d) A square wave

35)The most commonly used amplifier in Sample and Hold circuits is

a) Unity gain inverting amplifier b) Unity gain non-inverting amplifier
c) An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10 d) An inverting amplifier with a gain of  100

36. Which of the following is zero?  
 a)grad div   b)curl grad c)div grad d)curl curl 
37) The field intensity due to a point charge Q at a distance, R, is E1. If charge is increased to ‘4Q’ and distance is increased to ‘2R’, the field intensity E2 becomes 
(a)   E2 = E1 (b) E2 = 4E1 (c) E2 = 2E1 (d) E2 = E1/2
 38) The divergence theorem 
a) Relates a line integral to a surface integral. b) holds for specific vector fields only.
c) Works for open surfaces. d) Relates a surface integral to a volume integral.
39) The propagation velocity of TE waves 
a)Depends on frequency b) independent of frequency
c) depends on square of frequency d) varies inversely with frequency.
40)  Units of Charge 
a) Coulombs b) Coulombs / m c) coulombs/m2  d) Coulombs / m3
41) If the reflection coefficient is -1/2 then the swr is 
a)Zero b) one c)1/3 d) 3
42) Hysteresis and eddy current losses in loading coils leads to 
a) Increase in L b) Decrease in L c) Increase in R d) decrease in R
 43) For normal incidence of the wave on perfect conductor       
a) Surface current doesn’t exist b) surface exists  
c) conducting current exists d) free charge exists on the surface
44) A standing wave 
a) Progresses with less than light velocity b) progresses with more than light velocity
c) progresses with equal to light velocity d) does not progress.
45) The range of reflection coefficient is 
a) 0 to 1 b) 0 to infinity c) -1 to 1 d) 1 to infinity
46) Electric and magnetic fields which are parallel 
a)Constitute power flow b) constitute infinite power flow
c)constitute unit magnitude power flow d) no power flow.
47) The instantaneous rate of energy flow per unit area at a point is 
( a ) E x H ( b) 2E ( c ) B • ∇D • ∇ ( d ) Hx∇
48) When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wavelength along the wall is
( a ) shortened because of the Doppler effect
 ( b) the same as in free space
( c ) greater than in the actual direction of propagation
( d ) same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall
49) At the cut-off wave length, the wave between the walls of parallel plane guide 
( a ) is travel almost parallel to the axis of the guide
( b ) is travel perpendicular to the axis of the guide
( c ) is travel in zig-zag path ( d ) has no wave motion
50) If the time dependence of voltage is given as e-jwt, then Voe-γz will represent 
( a ) forward travelling wave (b ) backward travelling wave  
(c ) standing wave (d ) refracted wave
51) How many laws did Maxwell Proposed 
( a ) 1 ( b ) 2 ( c ) 3 ( d ) 4
52) For an open circuited line which is not true 
( a ) Zin = -jZo cotβl ( b ) S=0 ( c ) 1 −= Γ l 1 = Γ l ( d ) S = ∞
53) Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stubs because the latter are 
( a ) more difficult to make and connect
( b ) made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
( c ) liable to radiate 
( d ) incapable of giving a full range of reactances
54) For transmission-line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a 
(a) balun (b) broadband directional coupler
 (c) double stub (d) single stub of adjustable position
55) For any insolator  σ value is 
a)<<1 b)>>1              c)=1 d)zero
56)The first antenna was built by:
 (a) J. D. Kraus (b) Guglielmo Marconi (c) Heinrich Hertz (d) R. J. Marhefka
57) If L, M, t, I, T and i represent Length, mass, time, electric current, temperature and
luminous intensity respectively the fundamental dimensions include:
 (a) L, M and t only (b) L, M, t and I only (c) L, M, t, I and T only (d) All L, M, t, I, T and i
58)The unit of electric flux density is:
 (a) Coulombs per cubic meter (b) Coulombs per square meter
 (c) Coulombs per meter (d) Coulombs
59)The wavelength of 2-GHz wave is:
 (a) 15 cm (b) 15 mm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 1.5 mm
60) The relevant human dimension in terms of frequency is:
 (a) KHz (b) Hundreds of KHz (c) MHz (d) Hundreds of MHz
61) The vector magnetic potential can be defined where:
 (a) charge Iensity is zero 
(b) current density is zero
 (c) flux density is zero 
(d) for all time variant fields
62) Let the axial ratio (AR) of a polarization ellipse is defined in terms of the ratio of electric field intensity E. If E2 is the value of E along major axis and E1 along minor axes AR = E2/E1.Circular polarization is an extreme case of elliptic polarization which corresponds to:
 (a) E1 = E2 and AR = 1 (b) E1 = 0 and AR = 1
 (c) E1 = E2 and AR = 0 (d) E1 = 0 and AR = 0
63) which antenna is called super directive antenna
(a) Yagi Uda (b) microwave dish antenna (c) Horn Antenna (d) Helical antenna
64) which antenna is called super gain antenna
(a) Yagi Uda (b) microwave dish antenna (c) Horn Antenna (d) Helical antenna
65). What is the other name of parabolic antenna
(a) Yagi Uda (b) microwave dish antenna (c) Horn Antenna (d) Helical antenna
66)If in a network Si is the input signal Ni is the input noise, So is the output signal and No is the output noise the noise figure is given by:
(a) Si/So (b) Si+Ni / So+No (c) So/Si (d) So+No / Si+Ni
67)In general cosmic noise decreases with the increase in frequency and is of considerable
importance in:
 (a) LF and MF bands (b) MF and HF bands
 (c) HF and lower VHF bands (d) VHF and lower UHF bands.
68) What is the best source of parabolic antenna
(a) Yagi Uda (b) microwave dish antenna (c) Horn Antenna (d) Helical antenna
69) What is the maximum range of directors in Yagi uda antenna
 (a) 2 to 32 (b) 2 (c) 32 (d) 55
70) Which antenna has circular polarization
 (a) Yagi Uda (b) microwave dish antenna (c) Horn Antenna (d) Helical antenna
71)A dipole antenna is a straight radiator, usually fed in the center. It produces a maximum of radiation:
(a) in the plane parallel to its axis (b) in the plane normal to its axis
(c) at the place of feed (d) at its extreme ends
72) A pure sinusoidal continuous variation results in:
 (a) Infinite bandwidth (b) Wide bandwidth
 (c) Narrow bandwidth (d) Zero bandwidth
73) If Rr is the radiation resistance, T is the antenna temperature, RP indicates the radiation pattern and f denotes the frequency of operation, identify the correct statement.
 (a) All parameters Rr, T and RP are functions of f. (b) Only Rr and T are functions of f.
 (c) Only Rr and RP are functions of f. (d) Only RP and T are functions of f.
74)An ungrounded antenna near the ground acts as:
(a) a point source (b) a single antenna of twice of its actual length
(c) an antenna array (d) a single antenna of half of its actual length
75)Lens antenna has a special Property of _____
 (a) Collinating Action (b) Polarization (c) stability (d) isolation

76)In the figure, assume that the forward voltage drops to the PN diode D1 and Schottky diode D2 are 0.7 volts and 0.3 volts respectively. If ON denotes conducting state of the diode and OFF denotes the non conducting state of the diode, then in the circuit, 

a)Both are ON b)D1 is ON and D2 is OFF       c)Both are OFF d)D1 is OFF and D2 is ON

77)The diode in the circuit shown, if Von = 0.7 volts but is ideal otherwise. If Vi = 5 sin(ωt) volts, the minimum and maximum values of Vo (in volts) are, respectively,

a)-5 and 2.7 b)2.7 and 5 c)-5 and 3.85 d)1.3 and 5

78)Two silicon diodes, with a forward voltage drop of 0.7 volts, are used in the circuit shown in the figure. The range of input voltage Vi for which the output voltage Vo = Vi, is

a)-0.3 volts < Vi  < 1.3 volts b)-0.3 volts < Vi  < 2 volts 
c)-1.0 volts < Vi  < 2.0 volts d)-1.7 volts < Vi  < 2.7 volts

80)In the circuit shown, the PNP transistor has |VBE| = 0.7 volts and β = 50. Assume that RB = 100 KΩ. For Vo to be 5 volts, the value of RC (in KΩ) is ……..
a) 100 K ohms b)1.07 K ohms c) 10.7 Kohms d) 100.7 K ohms

81)In the circuit shown, the silicon BJT has β = 50. Assume VBE = 0.7 volts and VCEsat = 0.2 volts. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)For RC = 1 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation region 
b)For RC = 3 kΩ, the BJT operates in the saturation region
c)For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the cutoff region
d)For RC = 20 kΩ, the BJT operates in the linear region

82)For the common collector amplifier shown in the figure, the BJT has high β, negligible VCEsat and VBE = 0.7 volts. The maximum undistorted peak to peak output voltage Vo (in volts) is ………

           a)9.4 V b) 94 V c)9.4 mV d)94 mV

83)A BJT is biased in forward active mode. Assume VBE = 0.7 volts, KT/q = 25 mV and reverse saturation current IS = 10-13 Amp. The Transconductance of the BJT (in mA/volt) is…..
a)5785 mA/V     b) 5.785 ma/V c) 57.85mA/V d)578.5mA/V
84)How many AND gates are required to implement the Boolean expression,  ?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

85)Convert the 187 decimal number to 8-bit binary
a) 101110112 b)
c) 101111012 d) 101111002

86)Convert the binary number 1001.00102 to decimal.
a) 90.125 b) 9.125
c) 125 d) 12.5

87)How many flip-flops are in the 7475 IC?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 8

88)On a positive edge-triggered S-R flip-flop, the outputs reflect the input condition when ________.
a) the clock pulse is LOW
b) the clock pulse is HIGH
c) the clock pulse transitions from LOW to HIGH
d) the clock pulse transitions from HIGH to LOW

89)On the third clock pulse, a 4-bit Johnson sequence is Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1, and Q3= 0. On the fourth clock pulse, the sequence is ________.
a) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 1, Q3 = 1
b) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 1, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0
c) Q0 = 1, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0
d) Q0 = 0, Q1 = 0, Q2 = 0, Q3 = 0

90)For the device shown here, let all D inputs be LOW, both S inputs be HIGH, and the   input be LOW. What is the status of the Y output?

a) LOW
c) Don't Care
Cannot be determined

91)Which of the following expressions is in the product-of-sums form?
a) (A + B)(C + D)
b) (AB)(CD)
c) AB(CD)
d) AB + CD

92)How many flip-flops are required to make a MOD-32 binary counter?
a) 3 b) 45
c) 5 d) 6

93)Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation delay?
c) ECL d) 74SXX

94)The storage element for a static RAM is the ________.
a) diode b) resistor
c) capacitor d) flip-flop

95)Which type of ROM can be erased by an electrical signal?
a) ROM
b) mask ROM

96)Derive the Boolean expression for the logic circuit shown below:


97)The difference between a PLA and a PAL is:
a) The PLA has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while the PAL only has a programmable AND plane.
b) The PAL has a programmable OR plane and a programmable AND plane, while the PLA only has a programmable AND plane.
c) The PAL has more possible product terms than the PLA.
d) PALs and PLAs are the same thing.

98) In the Frequency Transformations of the analog domain the transformation is 
a) Low Pass to Lowpass b)Lowpass to Highpass                  c)Lowpass to Bandpass d)Lowpass to Bandreject

99)In the Frequency Transformations of the analog domain the transformation is 
a) Low Pass to Lowpass b)Lowpass to Highpass
c)Lowpass to Bandpass d)Lowpass to Bandreject

100) The magnitude response of the following filter decreases monotonically as frequency increases
a)Butterworth Filter b)Chebyshev type - 1
c)Chebyshev type - 2 d)FIR Filter

101)The transition band is more in 
a)Butterworth Filter b)Chebyshev type - 1
c)Chebyshev type - 2 d)FIR Filter

102)The poles of Butterworth filter lies on
a)sphere b)circle
c)ellipse d)parabola

103) I I R digital filters are of the following nature
a)Recursive b)Non Recursive
c)Reversive d)Non Reversive

104) In I I R digital filter the present output depends on
a)Present and previous Inputs only b)Present input and previous outputs only
c)Present input only d)Present Input, Previous input and output

105). Which of the following is best suited for I I R filter when compared with the FIR filter
a)Lower sidelobes in stopband b)Higher Sidelobes in stopband
c)Lower sidelobes in Passband d)No sidelobes in stopband

106) In the case of I I R filter which of the following is true if the phase distortion is tolerable
a)More parameters for design b)More memory requirement
c)Lower computational Complexity d)Higher computational complexity

107). A causal and stable I I R filter has
a)Linear phase b)No Linear phase
c)Linear amplitude d)No Amplitude
108)Neither the Impulse response nor the phase response of the analog filter is a)Preserved in the digital filter in the following method
b)The method of mapping of differentials
c)Impulse invariant method
d)Bilinear transformation Matched Z - transformation technique 

109). Out of the given I I R filters the following filter is the efficient one 
a) Circular filter b)Elliptical filter
c)Rectangular filter d)Chebyshev filter

110)What is the disadvantage of impulse invariant method 
a) Aliasing b)one to one mapping
c)anti aliasing d)warping

111)Which of the I I R Filter design method is antialiasing method?
a)The method of mapping of differentials b)Impulse invariant method
c)Bilinear transformation d)Matched Z - transformation technique 

112) The nonlinear relation between the analog and digital frequencies is called 
a)aliasing b)warping
c)prewarping d)antialiasing

113) The most common technique for the design of I I R Digital filter is 
a)Direct Method b)In direct method
c)Recursive method d)non recursive method

114)Pre-emphasis in FM used at
a) Receiving end b) transmitting end 
c) In the channel d) Before the demodulation

115)De-emphasis circuit resembles a
a) LPF b)HPF c)BPF d)BRF

116)Most of the power in AM signal lies in its 
a)Carrier b)LSB c)USB d)LSB&USB

117)All commerical receivers employ IF between
a)200  to 300KHZ b)455KHZ to 465KHZ 
c)740KHZ to 840KHZ d)12 to 13KHZ

118)TDM can be implemented using

119)A medium wave transmitter works in the frequency range
A)2.5 to 7.5MHZ B)500 to 1600KHZ C)7.5 to 30MHZ D)100 to 300KHZ

120)Three point tracking achieved with
A)Padder capacitor B)Double spotting 
C)Blocking D)Double conversion

121)Quatization noise occurs in

122)Which of the following is used to convert PPM into PWM
A)Clipping circuit B)Bistable multivibrator 
C)Astable multivibrator D)Clamping circuit

123)PWM signal can be demodulated using
A)Integrator and LPF B)Differentiator and LPF
 C) Integrator and HPF D) Differentiator and HPF

124)PPM can be generated from

125)Noise limiter is analogous to
A)clipper B)Clamper C)Rectifier D)AGC

126)Boosting high frequency components in modulating signal is called
A)Echo suppressing B)Attenauting C)Tone correction D)Pre-emphasis

127)The ability of the receiver to respond to the weakest signal is called
A)Sensitivity B)Selectivity C)Fidelity D)Image frequency rejection

128)Companding is used 
A)To overcome quatization noise in PCM
B)To protect small signals in PCM from quatization noise 
C)In PCM receivers to reduce impulse noise 
D)To increase the power contant of the modulated signal

129)Pulse communication system that is inherently highly immune to noise is 

130)To undo the distortion caused by the channel,which of the following can be used
A)Amplifier   B)Equalizer C)Attenautor D)Clamper

131)In a FM receiver the stage between IF amplifier and detector is
A)Mixer B)Limiter C)AF amplifier D)Local oscillator

132)The ability of the receiver to distinguish the wanted and unwanted signals is
A)Sensitivity B)Selectivity C)Fidelity D)S/N ratio

133)The component to produce the AM at RF frequencies is
A)Varactor B)Thermistor C)PIN diode D)Transistor

134)COHO in MTI radar operates
A)At supply frequency B)At intermediate frequency 
C)Pulse repetition frequency D)Station frequency
135)A rectangular waveguide behaves like a
136)PPI in radar system stands for
A)Plan position indicator B)Pulse position indicator
 C)Plan position image D)Prior position indentification

137)The doppler effect is used in
A)MTI B)CW C)FM D)Radar altimeter

138)COHO stands for
A)Coherent output B)Counter housed oscillator 
C)Coherent local oscillator D)Carrier oscillator and harteley oscillator

139)Large antenna used in radar bacause it
A)gives higher gain B)gives lesser side lobes
C)increase beam width D) increase band width

140)A biostatic radar has
A)one antenna for transmitting and as well as for receiving
B)two antennas for receiving the signal 
C) two antennas for transmitting signal
D) transmitting and receiving antennas

141)Blind speed causes target to appear
A)moving uniformly B)moving irregularly 
C)stationary D)intermittently

142)A radar system cannot be used
A)to detect moving objects B)to detect trajectory of moving objects C)to detect aircraft D)to detect storms

143)Most of the aircraft surveillance radars operate in
A)L Band B) C Band C) S Band D) X Band

144)Which of the following is not a display method
A)PPI B)Computer feeding C)Monopulse conical scanning D)A Scope

145)The antenna used for radar as
A)Paraboloidal antenna B)isotropic radiator 
C)resonant antenna D)whip antenna

146)The distance of 2000 yards is called
A)satellite mile B)radar mile C)1 yard D)1 Km

147)The duplexer consists of one---and another---switches
A)TR and ATR switches B)KR and TR 
C)ART and TR D)Diode and transistor

148)The echoes from the target are
A)repetitive B)once C)two times repeated D) four times repeated

149)Beacon is used instrument-----system for aircraft
A)Landing B)Lifting C)Consume D)Damage

150)In MTI coho is used for the generation of
A)RF Signal B) AF Signal C) AM Signal D) FM Signal

1 A 21 A 41 b 61 A 81 b 101 A 121 C 141 C
2 C 22 B 42 a 62 C 82 a 102 B 122 B 142 D
3 C 23 B 43 c 63 A 83 a 103 A 123 A 143 A
4 A 24 C 44 c 64 A STLD 104 D 124 C 144 C
5 D 25 B 45 D 65 b 84 C 105 A 125 A 145 A
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 a 85 A 106 C 126 D 146 B
7 C 27 A 47 A 67 d 86 B 107 B 127 A 147 A
8 C 28 C 48 D 68 c 87 C 108 D 128 B 148 A
9 A 29 A 49 d 69 a 88 C 109 B 129 D 149 A
10 A 30 C 50 a 70 d 89 A 110 A 130 B 150 A
11 B 31 C 51 d 71 c 90 A 111 B 131 C
12 A 32 D 52 d 72 b 91 A 112 B 132 B
13 B 33 B 53 d 73 a 92 C 113 A 133 C
14 C 34 D 54 d 74 a 93 C AC RS
15 B 35 B 55 d 75 a 94 D 114 B 134 B
16 A EMWTL AWP PDC 95 D 115 A 135 D
17 B 36 B 56 B 76 A 96 A 116 A 136 B
18 A 37 C 57 D 77 B 97 A 117 B 137 D
19 B 38 A 58 B 78 d DSP 118 A 138 C
20 B 39 A 59 A 79 b 98 C 119 B 139 A
40 a 60 A 80 b 99 D 120 A 140 D

Multiple Choice Questions for All Subjects - ECE Multiple Choice Questions for All Subjects -  ECE Reviewed by Suresh Bojja on 1/05/2016 09:27:00 AM Rating: 5

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